Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-101 Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) Version: Demo200-125 dumps  DEMO QUESTION 1 What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network 100-105 dumps  Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 2 Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database 210-260 dumps  Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3 What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.) A. hello packets B. SAP messages sent by other routers C. LSAs from other routers D. beacons received on point-to-point links E. routing tables received from other link-state routers F. TTL packets from designated routers Correct Answer: AC 300-115 dumps  QUESTION 4 What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.) A. It requires the use of ARP. B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks. Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. 200-105 dumps  Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4's routing table? (Choose three.) A. 172.16.1.0/24 B. 10.1.10.0/30 C. 10.0.0.0/8 D. 10.1.11.0/30 E. 172.16.0.0/16 F. 192.168.1.0/24 Correct Answer: CEF 300-101 dumps  QUESTION 6 The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch? 200-310 dumps  A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station E. The port is effectively shutdown 210-060 dumps  Correct Answer: BDQUESTION 7 In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests? A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses. B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion. C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address. D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses. 200-355 dumps  Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8 What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.) A. source IP address B. source MAC address C. egress interface D. ingress interface E. destination IP address F. IP next-hop 640-911 dumps  Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit. 300-075 dumps  The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port- security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.) A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1. C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch. D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1. F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1. Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 10 What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.) A. To identify applications causing congestion B. To authorize user network access C. To report and alert link up / down instances D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 11If required, what password should be configured on the DeepSouth router in the branch office to allow a connection to be established with the MidEast router? A. No password is required. B. Enable C. Secret D. Telnet E. Console Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12 Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5 The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5? A. The traffic goes through R2. B. The traffic goes through R3. C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3. D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13 What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subint A. They create split-horizon issues. B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain. C. They emulate leased lines. D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies. E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14 Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface? A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap   Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options? A. NCP B. ISDN C. SLIP D. LCP E. DLCI Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16 The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning pass4itsure this command? A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode. B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data. C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information. D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations. E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC. Correct Answer: E
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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-001 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (VIVND) Version:

DemoQUESTION 1 Which scheduling and management n10-006 dumps application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy? A. Cisco Video Communications B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite C. Cisco Digital Media Manager D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2 Which two issues does utilizing an https://www.lead4pass.com/70-486.html IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.) A. analog to IP conversion B. large, expandable storage space C. physical security D. scalability E. faster bit rate for storage Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3 When dialing, in a format that is consistent for all users of a system, a user who has multiple TelePresence video devices associated, what are the three minimum requirements that must be configured for the user to be able to receive video calls? (Choose three.) A. The Active Directory server must be installed. B. Ensure that the Cisco 400-101 dumps TelePresence Video Communications Server has the FindMe option key installed. C. Ensure that FindMe is set to on. D. The NTP server must be set up. E. The Cisco TelePresence Management Suite must be installed. Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4 In an ISR Cisco cisco 300-075 Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity allowed per module? A. 1 TB per module B. 2 TB per module C. 3 TB per module D. 500 MB per module E. 750 MB per module F. 850 MB per module Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 While performing a password recovery on a Cisco cisco 700-505 TelePresence endpoint, what is the maximum amount of time for input to be received by the device before the system exits the password recovery mode? A. 15 secondsB. 20 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 40 seconds E. 60 seconds Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibits. An administrator needs to perform a factory reset on a C-Series endpoint. What are two valid ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D E. Exhibit E Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7 An important Cisco cisco 400-351 TelePresence video multipoint call is in progress and you are getting complaints of pixilation of the video and poor audio quality on one of the involved systems. Which page would be a good place to start for troubleshooting the issue on the affected endpoint? A. B. C. D.Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. When the administrator 100-105 pdf clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the administrator? (Choose two.) A. ignore ticket B. acknowledge ticket C. delete ticket D. close ticketE. escalate ticket Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9 Which two of these support an ad-hoc conference call? (Choose two.) A. Cisco TelePresence Multiway with Cisco 200-125 vce TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit and Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server B. using the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Scheduler to schedule a conference call to start in 5 minutes C. using the Booking tab in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to configure a new conference D. using the tab Administrative Tools > 70-483 dumps Configuration > Conference Settings in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite E. pressing the conference button on a Cisco Unified IP Phone 8941 to conference in a third call Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10 A user wants to use the One Button to Push feature on a Cisco 200-355 dumps TelePresence System 500- 32 video endpoint. Which configuration tool should be used to allow the One Button to Push feature to work? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager server, phones, devices, One Button to Push B. Cisco Gigaswitch Router, Call Manager Express, One Button to Push C. Cisco TelePresence Manager Suite server, new conference, set Conference type to One Button to Push D. Active Directory server, users, new conference, One Button to Push E. Cisco 640-911 dumps TelePresence Video Communication Server, new conference, calls, One Button to Push Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 Which of these devices require configuration in order for an endpoint to initiate a Multiway conference? A. endpoint only B. Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server only C. multipoint control unit only D. endpoint and multipoint control unit only E. endpoint and Cisco TelePresence Video https://www.lead4pass.com/117-101.html Communications Server only F. endpoint, Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server, and multipoint control unit Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 12 You have installed a C-Series endpoint in an office where DHCP is not supported. At a minimum, which four network items must be configured for the endpoint to be able to register with H.323 on a Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/640-692.html TelePresence Video Communication Server located at the external headquarters location? (Choose four.) A. unique IPv4 address B. subnet mask C. default gateway D. Cisco VCS IPv4 address E. Active Directory IPv4 address F. SMTP server IPv4 address Correct Answer: ABCD